A recent letter compared British Prime Minister Chamberlain's agreement with Hitler in 1938 to President Obama's response to the surprise reaching-out by Iran's new democratically-elected president.
The writer unfortunately forgot history -- what the infamous Dulles brothers, through the CIA, did to Iran, and how the United States covertly removed Iran's Prime Minister Mohammad Mosaddegh against the will of millions of very proud Persians (now called Iranians) who never invaded another country. How can the writer arrogantly deny an independent and sovereign Iran the right to do everything to defend itself while, at the same time, not understand the reasons why the people of Iran do not trust the United States?
It seems to be really far away from reality to imply that Iran's only intention is to kill millions of Jews. And consequently, it seems unlikely that any appeasement offered by Obama would be harmful to the United States.
Also, how does Hitler's attempt to extinguish the Jews relate to Iran's reasonable action, now 70 years later, to defend itself?
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And then, there is the writer's final confusing statement: "Does Harvard teach history?" Please, help me to understand.
Hilton Head Island